Hebrews 6:4

Would you just assume that the verb “were enlightened” (φωτισθεντας) is a divine passive?

Αυτω η δοξα,

Jason

5 thoughts on “Hebrews 6:4

  1. If the verb were not a divine passive, how else could it be understood? The verb could mean something such as “to be made to understand” and thus not necessarily have implications of salvation. However, being made a “partaker” of the Holy Spirit seems to signify regeneration, but that causes all kinds of theological fits.

    I think that in order to understand this verse I would have to carefully exegete all of the verses in its surrounding context. The question is: “What type of person (saved/unsaved/immature Christian) is he talking about?” To tell the truth, I cannot make the verse fit any standard interpretation. This one is notoriously difficult!

  2. Yep, on first reading of the Greek text, but theological reflections with a particular traditional might cause me to conclude otherwise.

  3. As far as theological traditions influencing one’s exegesis, we all know that Jason is a 5-point-card-carrying-Arminian and that is why he posted this question! 🙂

  4. TC: Yep, but I’ve not read one yet of which I’ve been convinced.

    Brian: Quite the comedian you’ve become!😉 Now, go ahead and confess your Pelagian tendencies!😛

    Esteban: I’ve not read Zerwick–perhaps I shall consult him!

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